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Old 07-16-2024, 11:30 AM   #1
Baby Ruth
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Standings Question

Why is Baltimore considered higher than Chicago in this situation? I thought if two teams had the same winning percentage the one with more wins was ranked higher.
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Old 07-16-2024, 11:35 AM   #2
Matt Arnold
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The winning pct tiebreaker uses one more decimal place to break ties. So Baltimore for tiebreaking purposes is at .5143 and Chicago is .5135.

If they were still tied at that, the next tiebreak steps would be +/- (both would be +1 as both are 1/2 game above .500), then head to head, and then it would go into all the weird intra-division record tiebreak rules.
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Old 07-16-2024, 11:40 AM   #3
Baby Ruth
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Oh boy. Much more complex than I thought.
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Old 07-16-2024, 09:38 PM   #4
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Oh boy. Much more complex than I thought.
I suppose at some point B comes before C will apply!
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Old 07-17-2024, 08:05 AM   #5
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General rule of thumb, too, on this:

When 2 teams are the same amount of games above .500, the team with fewer losses will have a higher winning percentage, even if it has to be extended out to more than 3 decimal places, because they've played fewer games. In that example, Chicago has 1 more win and 1 more loss than Baltimore. That 1-1 record is .500, which drops Chicago's winning percentage because they're already above .500.

When 2 teams are the same amount of games below .500, the team with more wins will have a higher winning percentage, even if it has to be extended out to more than 3 decimal places, because they've played more games. If it had been Chicago at 18-19 and Baltimore at 17-18, Chicago would be higher. The 1 extra win and 1 extra loss is .500, which elevates a team's winning percentage when their record is below .500.
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