Another OOTP 1st?

[Ike348]

Originally Posted by bwburke94

1: MLB defines a no-hitter as "...when a pitcher (or pitchers) allows no hits during the entire course of a game, which consists of at least nine innings". The rule is interpreted as requiring innings pitched to be greater than or equal to 9, so giving up no hits in 8 innings does not qualify.



2: See above. The most recent shortened no-hit game I can remember is Devern Hansack pitching 5 innings in 2007, and it did not qualify as a no-hitter.



Addendum: A "Harvey Haddix" situation (no hits until the 10th) no longer qualifies, as the definition was revised in 1991 to exclude Haddix's game.

Thanks, but shouldn't that be interpreted to mean that the game has to last 9 innings? If so, that answers my second point.

EDIT: Saw this on retrosheet:

Note: Silver King no-hitter on 6/21/1890 has been removed (on 5/21/2007) since he pitched only eight innings.

I still say that the rule has bad grammar, but that's not important.