164th Game (AKA Or Strike Two, You're Out)

[John C]

So, through 162 games, the Toronto Blue Jays, Tampa Bay Rays, and Cleveland Indians each found themselves tied for two playoff spots. All were 88-74 to finish the season.

The Indians were assured of a playoff game for the Wild Card against the loser of the AL East playoff game between the Rays and Blue Jays. The Rays took the East title, 2-1.

So now, Toronto will head home to face the Indians, and face the possibility that they may have two playoff games, and no actual playoffs.

I had not seen this before in any OOTP universe. I thought it was interesting enough to share.

[theasfl]

glad to see OOTP handling the situation correctly

[falkonisback]

Originally Posted by John C

So, through 162 games, the Toronto Blue Jays, Tampa Bay Rays, and Cleveland Indians each found themselves tied for two playoff spots. All were 88-74 to finish the season.

The Indians were assured of a playoff game for the Wild Card against the loser of the AL East playoff game between the Rays and Blue Jays. The Rays took the East title, 2-1.

So now, Toronto will head home to face the Indians, and face the possibility that they may have two playoff games, and no actual playoffs.

I had not seen this before in any OOTP universe. I thought it was interesting enough to share.

Ok, I'm a little confused on this situation, maybe you guys could shed some light for me.</br></br>Alright..The indians are guarenteed a playoff berth (I'm assuming they won the wild card) against the loser of the Rays and Blue Jays. The Rays win the game and ultimately take the AL East. </br></br>Alright, so why do the Jays have to go play the Indians in another playoff game if we already know that the Rays are playing the Indians in the playoffs? Shouldn't the Jays just be going home? Also, what happens to the playoff picture if the Jays beat the Indians? Do the Indians go home? If that is the case, then the Indians weren't guarenteed anything?</br></br>Please someone help me understand this. Thanks.

[John C]

You misread.

All I stated was that the Indians were guaranteed a playoff game for the WC slot. I wrote "The Indians were assured of a playoff game for the Wild Card...". They were to play the loser of the AL East playoff game, as, when the season ended, the two teams were also tied for the wild card with Cleveland.

So, Cleveland, while not assured a playoff berth (and thus, not facing the Rays just yet) were assured to be playing a game against either Tampa or Toronto (ended up being Toronto) for the Wild Card.

[John C]

dola--

For the record, Toronto beat Cleveland in the WC playoff.

This 2021 season is shaping up to be pretty special...at least, the final days of the season are. Perfect game on October 1st, a batter hits .400, two playoff games involving the same team...pretty interesting stuff.

[Le Grande Orange]

Originally Posted by falkonisback

Ok, I'm a little confused on this situation, maybe you guys could shed some light for me. The indians are guarenteed a playoff berth (I'm assuming they won the wild card) against the loser of the Rays and Blue Jays. The Rays win the game and ultimately take the AL East. Alright, so why do the Jays have to go play the Indians in another playoff game if we already know that the Rays are playing the Indians in the playoffs? Shouldn't the Jays just be going home? Also, what happens to the playoff picture if the Jays beat the Indians? Do the Indians go home? If that is the case, then the Indians weren't guarenteed anything? Please someone help me understand this.

The situation is TOR and TBA are tied for the East Division title with 88-74 records, and CLE is the best non-division winning team (i.e. wild card) with an 88-74 record. The way it works in the real-world MLB varies slightly depending on the year.

Originally, what would happen is that TOR and TBA would play a one-game playoff to determine the East Division champion. CLE was guaranteed a post-season berth. Why? Because the loser of the TOR-TBA playoff would have an 88-75 record, a half-game worse than CLE's 88-74 record (tiebreaking playoff games are considered part of the regular season).

In 2001 or 2002, MLB changed the rules. It was considered unfair that CLE was guaranteed a post-season berth when at the end of the regular season it had the same record as another potential post-season qualifier. Now what would happen is that, first, TOR and TBA play for the East Division title. Second, the loser of that game then plays CLE in a one-game playoff to determine the wild card qualifier. Why? Because ties for a post-season berth are now determined based of the record at the end of the regular season, and the loser of the TOR-TBA playoff had the same record as CLE after 162 games.

[Curtis]

Originally Posted by John C

So now, Toronto will head home to face the Indians, and face the possibility that they may have two playoff games, and no actual playoffs.

I had not seen this before in any OOTP universe. I thought it was interesting enough to share.

It was interesting enough to share. Keep in mind though (as LGO implies) that Toronto would play two play-IN games, not two play-OFF games. Their 163rd and 164th game (and the other two teams' 163rd games) do not count as part of the playoffs.