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Originally Posted by bwburke94
1: MLB defines a no-hitter as "...when a pitcher (or pitchers) allows no hits during the entire course of a game, which consists of at least nine innings". The rule is interpreted as requiring innings pitched to be greater than or equal to 9, so giving up no hits in 8 innings does not qualify.
2: See above. The most recent shortened no-hit game I can remember is Devern Hansack pitching 5 innings in 2007, and it did not qualify as a no-hitter.
Addendum: A "Harvey Haddix" situation (no hits until the 10th) no longer qualifies, as the definition was revised in 1991 to exclude Haddix's game.
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Thanks, but shouldn't that be interpreted to mean that the game has to last 9 innings? If so, that answers my second point.
EDIT: Saw this on retrosheet:
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Note: Silver King no-hitter on 6/21/1890 has been removed (on 5/21/2007) since he pitched only eight innings.
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I still say that the rule has bad grammar, but that's not important.