Quote:
|
Originally Posted by Vris
dola,
I think what he's trying to say is that instead of waiving him to trade him, he waived him in the hopes that the White Sox would claim him. He was unclear of the waiver rules regarding trades so he just waived him and was "trading" him to the White Sox in that regard.
No?
|
Yeah, we waived our players (he sent me three prospects, which aren't an issue here for this, I've got them) in an effort to trade them. I claimed his, he claimed mine, and I made a huge deal with the other GMs saying if they claimed the 4 guys in the trade, I'd cut off all trade ties and friendly negotiations with them in the future. Drastic, I know, but with some of the douchebags, you kind of have to. Anyways, the point is we didn't do it actually *as a trade*, we just both agreed on the personnel, put them on waivers, and made the claims. Now the only other guy who has put a claim on Sabathia besides Chicago is the Dodgers, who have a better record by three games but is in my league. So, my question is essentially, who gets the player? The Dodgers or the White Sox?
Thanks for the help.